Towards Maclaurin
Build series for the sine and cosine functions by adding one term at a time, alternately making the approximation too big then too small but getting ever closer.
Problem
(2) By considering the derivative of the function $$f(x) = \cos x - \left(1 - {x^2\over 2}\right)$$ prove that $\cos x \geq 1 - {x^2\over 2}$ for $x \geq 0$.
(3) By considering the derivative of the function $$f(x) = \left(x - {x^3 \over 3!}\right) - \sin x $$ prove that $\sin x \geq (x - {x^3 \over 3!})$ for $x \geq 0$.
(4) By considering the derivative of the function $$f(x) = \cos x - \left(1 - {x^2 \over 2!} + {x^4\over 4!}\right) $$ prove that $\cos x \leq \left(1 - {x^2\over 2!} + {x^4 \over 4!}\right)$ for $x \geq 0$.
(5) What can you say about continuing this process?
Getting Started
If you can show that the derivative of a function is always positive then the function is increasing and if you can show that the derivative is always negative then the function is decreasing.
Student Solutions
Teachers' Resources
Why do this problem?
This problem gives a method for building up the Maclaurin series for sine and cosine by creating a sequence of polynomial expansions which are alternately larger and smaller than the actual function. It is an alternative method to the standard formula for Maclaurin expansions and may help students to get more of a sense of these two important standard series.
Possible approach
The problem provides suitable guidance to be completed independently by students who are willing and able to follow the instructions very carefully. However, it might be helpful to go through the first step together, showing that $x- \sin x = 0$ when $x=0$ and that the derivative of $x- \sin x \geq 0$ for all $x \geq 0$. This will allow teachers to check that the students understand how to go about showing each inequality in the problem. They may need to check in again at step (3) when the derivative is $\leq 0$ to ensure the correct conclusion is drawn.
Possible extension
Students are asked in part (5) about generalising this method. What formulae would you expect to derive this way? This method shows a sequence of polynomial approximations to the trig. functions. You are not being asked to give a rigorous proof that the formulae hold in general; that requires a little more work.
Here is another route to the same result. It is not a solution to the problem because the problem specified another method. This should help in seeing the bigger picture more clearly.
We know $\cos x \leq 1$ for all $x$.
The function $f_1(x) = 1 - \cos x$ is positive for all x and so the integral of this function from 0 to $x$ is positive for all $x$. Hence $$\int_0^x f_1 (x) dx =x -\sin x $$ is positive so $\sin x \leq x$.
Integrating again, where $f_2(x) = x - \sin x$ $$\int_0^x f_ 2(x) dx ={x^2\over 2} + \cos x - 1$$ is positive so $\cos x \geq 1 - {x^2\over 2}$.
Integrating again, where $f_3(x)= \cos x - \left(1 - {x^2\over 2}\right)$ $$\int_0^x f_ 3(x) dx =\sin x - \left(x - {x^3\over 3!}\right)$$ is positive so $\sin x \geq x- {x^3\over 3!}$.
Integrating again, where $f_4(x)= \sin x - \left(x - {x^3\over 3!}\right)$ $$\int_0^x f_ 4(x) dx =-\cos x - \left({x^2\over 2!} - {x^4\over 4!}\right)+ 1$$ is positive so $\cos x \leq 1 - {x^2\over 2!} + {x^4\over 4!}$
and so on ...