In this article we shall look at some elementary results in
Number Theory, partly because they are interesting in themselves,
partly because they are useful in other contexts (for example in
olympiad problems), and partly because they will give you a
flavour of what Number Theory is about.
You will require a little knowledge in advance, but not much: you
need to be familiar with congruence notation, and you need to
know that if $a$ and $n$ are coprime (have highest common factor
$1$) then $a$ has a multiplicative inverse mod $n$ (that is,
there is an integer $b$ such that $a\times b\equiv 1 mod n$). You
can find an explanation of all of this in the article called
Modular
Arithmetic . You might also find it useful to know that an
integer is a whole
number ($\ldots, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, \ldots$ are all
integers), and by
natural
number , I mean a positive integer ($1, 2, 3, \ldots$).
Sometimes people include $0$ as a natural number, but I'm not
going to in this article.
We say that $x$
divides
$y$, written $x|y$, if there is an integer $c$ such that $y=c x$.
So for example, $3|6$ (as $6=2\times 3$), but $3\nmid7$. We need
a little property of primes to help us later. The property is
that if $p$ is a prime and $p|a b$, then $p|a$ or $p|b$. Is this
obvious? Well, no, not really, because it's not true unless $p$
is a prime. For example, $4$ divides $6\times 10=60$, but $4$
does not divide $6$ and $4$ does not divide $10$. Let's prove it
(for primes, of course!). We know that $p|a b$. If $p|a$ or
$p|b$, then obviously the result is true, so let's suppose that
it doesn't. Now we're going to use Bezout's Theorem, which says
that $m$ and $n$ are coprime if and only if there exist integers
$h$ and $k$ such that $h m+k n=1$. Since $p\nmid a$, $a$ and $p$
are coprime (remember, $p$ is a prime). So there exist integers
$h$ and $k$ such that $a h+p k=1$. Similarly, there are integers
$H$ and $K$ such that $b H+p K=1$. Let's multiply these equations
together. Then $1=(a h+p k)(b H+p K)=a b h H+p k b H+p K a h+p^2
k K= (a b)(h H)+p(k b H+K a h+p k K)$. But $p|a b$ and certainly
$p|p$, so $p$ divides the right-hand side, so $p|1$. But this is
absurd. So $p|a$ or $p|b$.
We can use this result and induction to prove the following very
important theorem:
The Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic:
Every natural number $n> 1$ can be expressed in an essentially
unique way as the product of prime numbers.
By "essentially unique", I mean "counting different orderings of
the primes as the same": $12=2^2\times3=3\times2^2$, but I'm
counting these products as essentially the same. You should also
note the very important fact that $1$ is
not a prime number - otherwise this
theorem would clearly be false! I'm not going to prove this
result here, but you might like to have a go yourself, or you can
look it up in any introductory book on number theory.
The first theorem we're going to prove is called
Fermat's Little Theorem , sometimes,
confusingly, known as FLT (confusing because FLT is also used to
refer to Fermat's Last Theorem, which is something quite
different!). Here's what the theorem says:
Theorem: Let $p$ be a
prime and $a$ a natural number not divisible by $p$. Then
\begin{equation} a^{p-1}\equiv 1 \text{ mod } p. \end{equation}
This is in essence the same as the following statement:
Let $p$ be a prime and $a$ a natural number. Then
\begin{equation} a^p\equiv a \text{ mod } p. \end{equation} Why
is this really the same? If $a\equiv 0 \text{ mod } p$, then it's
pretty obvious that $a^p\equiv a \text{ mod } p$. If $a\not\equiv
0 \text{ mod } p$, then it has an inverse, so we can multiply
both sides of (2) by the inverse and get back (1). Also, I hope
it's clear that we can multiply both sides of (1) by $a$ to get
(2).
Let's prove the theorem (we'll prove (1)). Consider the set
$\{1,2,3,\ldots,p-1\}$. This contains all of the distinct
non-zero elements mod $p$ (that is, they are all different, and
none of them is zero mod $p$). Since they are all non-zero, if we
multiply them all together, we'll get something non-zero mod $p$
(repeatedly using the result from earlier that if $p|a b$ then
$p|a$ or $p|b$). Now consider the set
$\{a,2a,3a,\ldots,(p-1)a\}$, where we reduce each element mod $p$
(so it lies between 0 and $p-1$). Now none of these numbers is 0
mod $p$, and they are all distinct (check this, if you don't
believe me!). So it's the set of all of the non-zero elements mod
$p$. So certainly multiplying all the numbers in the second set
gives the same answer as multiplying all the numbers in the first
set (mod $p$). In symbols, $1\times 2\times \ldots\times
(p-1)\equiv a\times(2a)\times\ldots\times(p-1)a\equiv
a^{p-1}\times 1\times 2\ldots\times (p-1) \text{ mod } p$. Since
$1\times 2\times \ldots\times (p-1)\not\equiv 0 mod p$, we can
divide by it, leaving $a^{p-1}\equiv 1 \text{ mod } p$.
The next theorem is a generalisation of Fermat's Little Theorem,
but first we need to define a new function.
The
Euler phi function ,
also known as the
Euler totient
function , is defined as the function
$\varphi:\mathbf{N}\rightarrow\mathbf{N}$ (that is, taking values
in the natural numbers and giving values in the natural numbers)
where $\varphi(n)$ is the number of natural numbers less than or
equal to $n$ that are coprime to $n$. So $\varphi(p)=p-1$ for all
primes $p$ (because everything less than $p$ is coprime to $p$),
for example. Another example: $\varphi(15)=8$, since $1, 2, 4, 7,
8, 11, 13$ and $14$ are exactly the natural numbers less than and
coprime to $15$.
This function has a special property. If $m$ and $n$ are
coprime , then
$\varphi(m n)=\varphi(m)\varphi(n)$. I'm going to leave the proof
of this to you as an exercise, because with a couple of hints
it's not too hard. We've already worked out what $\varphi(p)$ is
if $p$ is prime. Now work out $\varphi(p^2)$ and then work out
$\varphi(p^k)$ where $k$ is a natural number. Now work out
$\varphi(p q)$, where $p$ and $q$ are different primes, and work
up to $\varphi(p^m q^n)$, again where $p$ and $q$ are distinct
primes. Spotted the pattern? Now use the Fundamental Theorem of
Arithmetic (see above) to prove that $\varphi(m
n)=\varphi(m)\varphi(n)$ for coprime $m$, $n$.
Now let's look at a generalisation of Fermat's Little Theorem,
sometimes called the
Fermat-Euler Theorem .
Theorem: Let $n> 1$ be
a natural number and $a$ an integer coprime to $n$. Then
$a^{\varphi(n)}\equiv 1 \text{ mod } n$.
Why is this a generalisation of Fermat's Little Theorem? Well,
consider when $n$ is prime. Then $\varphi(n)=n-1$, and we get
back exactly the statement of Fermat's Little Theorem.
I'm going to leave the proof as an exercise, as it's very similar
to the proof of Fermat's Little Theorem.
We now come to the last theorem in this article, called
Wilson's Theorem .
Theorem: Let $p$ be a
prime number. Then $(p-1)!\equiv -1 \text{ mod } p$ (where !
denotes factorial).
At first sight, it might seem totally unclear how one could go
about proving this, but there is a beautiful and simple proof
that I shall outline now. Remember that each of the numbers $1,
2, 3, \ldots, p-1$ has an inverse \text{ mod } $p$? So we can
pair off numbers, so that a number in the pair is the inverse of
the other number in the pair. But a number could be the inverse
of itself. When does this happen? If you think about it, you'll
see that $x$ is its own inverse only if $x^2\equiv 1 \text{ mod }
p$. That is, $x$ is its own inverse only if $(x-1)(x+1)\equiv 0
\text{ mod } p$, and since $p$ is prime, we see that we must have
$x-1\equiv 0 \text{ mod } p$ or $x+1\equiv 0 \text{ mod } p$, so
the only numbers between $1$ and $p-1$ that are their own
inverses are $1$ and $p-1$. Now let's think back to $(p-1)!$.
Each pair $(a,a^{-1})$ contributes $1$ to this product, so the
only things we have left to worry about are $1$ and $p-1$. So
$(p-1)!\equiv 1\times(p-1)\equiv -1 \text{ mod } p$, as we
wanted.
I hope this has given you a flavour of what Number Theory is
about; there are numerous books available that continue to
develop the theory, and large numbers of olympiad problems you
might like to tackle with your new knowledge!