Thank you for your solutions to this problem to Annie from Newstead Wood,
Andre from Tudor Vianu National College, Romania and Ben who did not give
the name of his school. This is Ben's solution.
(1)
As
cosx £ 1 then f¢(x) is always positive so the function
f(x) = x - sinx is always increasing, so
x is becoming increasingly larger than sin x and therefore,
when x ³ 0, sinx £ x.
(2)
We have already shown that sinx £ x, therefore
x - sinx ³ 0. So the function
is always increasing when x ³ 0
and f(0)=0. For this to be true
when x ³ 0.
(3)
|
|
| |
| |
| = 1 - |
x2 2
|
- cosx £ 0 by (2) |
|
|
As
then f¢(x) here must always be negative.
Therefore
is always decreasing for
x ³ 0. As f(0) = 0, and the function decreases as x
increases, then f(x) £ 0 when x ³ 0.
Hence
for x ³ 0.
Note that the derivative of
is
and we can write 2=2!.
(4)
|
|
|
= cosx - (1 - |
x2 2!
|
+ |
x4 4!
|
) |
| |
| |
| = - sinx + x - |
x3 3!
|
£ 0 by (3) |
|
|
As
then the function
| f(x) = cosx - (1 - |
x2 2!
|
+ |
x4 4!
|
)
|
is always decreasing, and again f(0) = 0 so f(x) £ 0 for x ³ 0.
If this
is true then
| cosx £ (1 - |
x2 2!
|
+ |
x4 4!
|
)
|
for x ³ 0.
(5) If we continue this
process, we see that
|
1 - |
x2 2!
|
+ |
x4 4!
|
- |
x6 6!
|
£ cosx £ 1 - |
x2 2!
|
+ |
x4 4!
|
. |
|
As we introduce more terms this series gets closer to cosx.
This process can be repeated indefinitely to give the infinite
Maclaurin series, valid for all x (in radians)
|
cosx = 1 - |
x2 2!
|
+ |
x4 4!
|
- |
x6 6!
|
+ ... |
|
By a similar look at the terms for sinx, we get the infinite
Maclaurin series for sinx, again valid for all x (in radians)
|
sinx = x - |
x3 3!
|
+ |
x5 5!
|
- |
x7 7!
|
+ ... |
|