| Yatir
Halevi |
I have in front of me a proof to the theorem: ''If each of two sets and can be mapped injectively into the other, then there is a bijection from to .'' I'm having trouble following the proof. Could somebody help me? :) Here is the proof: Let and be injections. For each define the set by: that is, any subset is mapped to , then we take its complement in , then its complement is mapped back to obtain , and of this we finally take to complement in . Suppose that there is some with , that is, such that . Then, clearly, (Not very clear to me... :) ), if if provides a bijection from to . Hence it remains to find such a ''fixed set'' . (I also have a proof for that, and that was easy to understand) Thanks in advance, Yatir |
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| Chris
Purcell |
Firstly, is an injection. Since , that means every must equal for some , and since is an injection that element is unique. Hence defining on makes sense, giving us a bijection between and . Secondly, is an injection. That means also gives us a bijection between and simply by virtue of being injective on it. Now and are disjoint and together make up all of . Equally, and are disjoint and together make up all of . is thus a bijection from to . Sorry if this is still impenetrable - clearly is always hard to explain! Chris |
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| Yatir
Halevi |
Got it! Thanks. I just needed someone to spell it out for me Yatir |