| A M |
is the nabla(grad, or upside down delta of a function) vector orthogonal to the suface of the plane? If so, how come? Is there a proof? |
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| Dan
Goodman |
Yes it is, assuming you have a function with the surface defined to be the set of points with . The proof is not completely easy and uses the higher dimensional chain rule for differentiation, but here goes. Suppose you have a vector in the tangent plane at a point on the surface. Draw a curve on the surface going through at with tangent vector at , i.e. . Now, because is a curve in the surface, you have that . So if we let then . Using the chain rule we have that , which is what we wanted. So, I've used the higher dimensional chain rule which says that if and and defined by then . |
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| David
Loeffler |
Yes. When you have a 2-D surface in 3-D space defined by where is some (sufficiently smooth) function, then the vector is orthogonal to the surface at the point . There are various ways of looking at this. One is to use Taylor's theorem. Let be a point on the surface, so . Then the higher-dimensional form of Taylor's theorem states that plus some terms of the order of , and squared. You can see that if is on the surface , then the first term is zero. The second term you can recognise as What does this mean? It means that locally the surface 'looks like' the surface constant. This is just a plane with normal . So the normal at that one point is parallel to at that point. (This stuff is fairly hard, so if there's anything you don't understand, please let me know and I'll explain it more carefully.) David |
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| David
Loeffler |
Oops. Take your pick of the available proofs David |
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| A M |
That took some time to grasp, and Thanks! |