Andrew Butt
Posted on Monday, 03 February, 2003 - 07:14 pm:

How does one go about expanding a bracket to the power of one half (ie. sqare-rooted)? NB the bracket contains four terms. Also, on a related note, how would you expand the following (I know how to expand the (x + y)^n):

(z - (x + y)^n)^1/n
Angelina Lai
Posted on Monday, 03 February, 2003 - 07:41 pm:

Andrew, do you know Binomial Expansion/Series? It seems like you do, but in case you are not sure, here is an explanation from mathworld:
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BinomialSeries.html

This works for non-integer values of n too.
Chris Tynan
Posted on Monday, 03 February, 2003 - 08:43 pm:

Angelina's link explains the Binomial series, but since your bracket contains four terms it is not a binomial so the series is not valid.

As for expanding your second series, I'm not sure how to it, if you had it all in terms of one variable it is possible I think, by differentiating, but this is not the case.

Chris
Angelina Lai
Posted on Monday, 03 February, 2003 - 08:59 pm:

Oh sorry, I totally blanked the rest of your post! What you can do is treating 2 terms as 1 at a time...but I realise that could be rather demanding algebraically...

Looking at your expression, just wondered - is z meant to be complex? Because if so you can probably use De Moivres, which would make matter much simpler...
Hauke Worpel
Posted on Monday, 03 February, 2003 - 10:27 pm:

I'd make a substitution.

Let a=(x+y)n

Then you've got (z-a)1/n , which you can expand via the binomial expansion. When you've got your answer, change a back into (x+y)n and continue.
Andre Rzym
Posted on Monday, 03 February, 2003 - 10:31 pm:

Andrew, for your second question do you really want to expand powers of individual terms (x,y,z)? It's just that the most natural thing to do would be:

(z-(x+y)n )1/n = z1/n * (1 -q)1/n

= z1/n * (1 -(1/n).q/1! + (1/n)(1/n-1).q2 /2! - ...)

where

q = (x+y)n /z

Chris, your approach will work fine if you use partial differentials (I'll show you if you're interested), but Andrew is this what you really want?

Andre
Marcos
Posted on Tuesday, 04 February, 2003 - 11:20 am:


Quote:

(I'll show you if you're interested)



I'm interested

Marcos
Andre Rzym
Posted on Tuesday, 04 February, 2003 - 02:02 pm:

Suppose you were asked to expand f(x)=(1+x)n as a power series. All you need to do is use a Taylor series expansion for f(x):

f(x)=f(0)+f ' (0).x/1!+f ' ' (0).x2/2!+...

where f ' denotes df/dx etc. [you will notice that if you substitute x=0; of differentiate then substitute x=0; or differentiate twice then substitute x=0 etc.; the series has the correct value for f(0) and all its derivatives]. Substituting:

f(x)=1+n.x/1!+n(n-1).x2/2!+...

Now suppose we have g(x,y)=(1+x+y)n

The corresponding power series expansion is

g(x,y)=[g(0,0)]+[gx . x+gy . y]+ [1.gx x.x2+ 2.gx y.x.y.+gy y.y2]/2! + [gx x x.x3+3. gx x y.x2.y+3.gy y x.x.y2+1.gy y y.y3]/3!+...

where gx x y denotes 3 g/2 x y etc. Notice the appearance of the binomial coefficients in the square brackets. You will notice again that with this construction, all the partial derivatives of g at x=y=0 are recovered exactly.

Therefore in our example we have

g(x,y)=1+n.[x+y]+n.(n-1).[1.x2+2.x.y+y2]/2!+n.(n-1).(n-2) [x3+3.x2.y+3.x.y2+1.y3]/3!+...

This approach can be expanded further for more variables.

Andre

Marcos
Posted on Tuesday, 04 February, 2003 - 02:34 pm:

Thanks

Marcos
Chris Tynan
Posted on Tuesday, 04 February, 2003 - 07:40 pm:

Thanks Andre

Chris
Andrew Butt
Posted on Tuesday, 04 February, 2003 - 08:41 pm:

I think that my question may have been answered in there somewhere. I was investigating the differentiation of the 'circular graphs' as it were ie. y^2 + x^2 = k.

Haven't got v. far, so i'll just look at something else, like y = e^x or y = sin x, which are easy.
Andre Rzym
Posted on Tuesday, 04 February, 2003 - 09:18 pm:

Andrew, your equation for a circle can be rearranged to

y = ±(k-x2 )1/2

Do you know how to differentiate this (or were you trying to do something different)?

In fact, if you are familiar with implicit differentiation, you can do it directly:

y2 + x2 = k

=>

2y.dy/dx + 2x = 0

=>

dy/dx = -x/y

Andre
Andrew Butt
Posted on Wednesday, 05 February, 2003 - 06:57 pm:

Aha. Thanks Andre. That was a fun GCSE investigation. (well actually we've finished the syllabus and started on A-level stuFF).