Fiona Roden
Posted on Wednesday, 09 June, 2004 - 05:53 pm:

Can anyone help with this question?

Find the following in the form a+ib

a) arccos 4
b) arcsin 2
c) arcsin i

The answers all involve pi and an inverse hyperbolic function, but I can't see why
David Loeffler
Posted on Wednesday, 09 June, 2004 - 06:00 pm:

Are you aware of the identities
cos ix = cosh x
sin ix = i sinh x?
Fiona Roden
Posted on Wednesday, 09 June, 2004 - 06:39 pm:

Yes. I got part of the solution but I'm not convinced about the rest. It should be
a) 2m pi +/- i arcosh4
b) (4m +1)pi/2 +/- i arcosh 2
c) n pi + i arsinh(-1)^n
Vicky Neale
Posted on Thursday, 10 June, 2004 - 09:39 am:

Could you tell us what you have done so far?

Vicky
umair butt
Posted on Thursday, 10 June, 2004 - 03:44 pm:

1) arccos(4)=a+ib4=cos(a+ib)4=cos(a)cos(ib)-sin(a)sin(ib)

so by using the identities we have:

4=cos(a)cosh(b)-isin(a)sinh(b)

so by equating real and imaginary parts we have:

(1) cos(a)cosh(b)=4 and (2) sin(a)sinh(b)=0

because b form a+ib on the left hand side is zero and a is 4. From (2) we can see that either sin(a) is zero a=0 or sinh(b)=0b=0. So let's assume that b is zero, so from (1) we have:

cos(a)cosh(0)=4cos(a)=4

Now we have a problem because a is a real number and cos(a) is not greater than 1 for real a, so b cannot be zero and a is zero:

cos(0)cosh(b)=4cosh(b)=4b=±arcosh(4)

The ± because cosh is an even function.

But a can also be 2kπ for any integer k because cos(2kπ) is still 1 and sin(2kπ) is still 0. So:

arccos(4)=2kπ±iarcosh(4).

Fiona Roden
Posted on Thursday, 10 June, 2004 - 09:44 pm:

Thanks. It all starts to make sense now