From an external perspective, the collapse of star to form a
black hole never happens because as the collapsing star
approaches the event horizon it goes slower and slower (as seen
externally, for an infalling particle it all happens in a finite
time).
How, then, can any black holes exist at all, because from our
external viewpoint, they could not have formed yet given the
finite age of the universe?
Sean
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NCSA
Numerical Relativity
Anton.
Hi!
I'm not at all sure about this but what about the following...
You're saying that the matter in a collapsing star would move
asymptotically closer to the "would-be" event horizon according
to an external persperctive but it will never get there because
of time dialation. If something is now dropped into the
collapsing star then it too must also experience the same effects
and stop outside the event horizon. So as far as someone outside
the event horizon is aware the black hole is behaving exactly as
black holes should - they are slowing down matter. The fact that
the singularity will not form for an infinite time is possibly
irrelevant - what do you think?
Thanks,
Michael
Michael, I think your answer captures
the point precisely. It is what I was starting to think, but you
have expressed it particularly clearly. I had been thinking in
terms of a photon emitted near the forming event horizon: it
would be so redshifted that it would look black anyway.
The point is that a nearly black hole does behave like a black
hole for an external observer, which, as you say, is what is
relevant. It is sort of interesting though that "textbook" black
holes don't strictly exist.
Sean
Yes, I'm quite surprised that I hadn't heard this before. So
what we are saying is that if you fall into a black hole then it
doesn't become a black hole until you pass the event horizon. At
this point your own time will have been dialated sufficiently to
give the star a chance to collapse fully. Still I can't really
expect to have much idea about what is really happening because I
don't understand (or haven't yet learnt) any of the maths behind
general relativity. Even so it's an interesting problem.
Michael
The time effect isn't that complicated
in itself, when you solve Einstein's equations for a spherical
situation such as a star or black hole you get the Schwarzchild
solution, which for a radially infalling photon (easy case)
means
0 = ds2 = (1 - rs / r) dt2 - (1
- rs / r)-1 dr2
So
dt/dr = (1 - rs / r)
you can see that as r gets close to rs (the
Schwartzchild radius) this is going to blow up. And by
integrating the equation we see that in fact it takes an infinite
time to reach the horizon. However if we transform the equations
into a frame falling into the hole the result turns out to be
finite.
Wow, that really is a simple result! I can understand why the
time turns out to be finite from a free-falling frame. How
drastically does this equation alter if the velocity is not
entirely radial (I don't suppose you can consider each dimension
separately...)? I've often wondered whether it would be possible
to sling shot around a black hole through a region behind
the event horizon. In terms of energy there is no particular
reason that you cannot do this. If the universe is destined to
expand forever and you actually tried to do this experiment then
when you come out an infinite amount of time would have had to
ellapsed for the rest of the universe! If the universe is closed
then of course if you fall into a black hole you will simply be
immediately at the big crunch (because while your time is
dialated the rest of the matter in the universe will rush
in).
Many thanks,
Michael
Many thanks for enlightening me on this subject. I have found
some info on this in one of my books: "Companion to the Cosmos"
(by John Gribbin), page 371. It states that in 1965 Roger Penrose
proved "that anything which falls into a non-rotating black hole
must be crushed into the singularity at the centre of the black
hole. There is no way for material to travel in an orbit that
sends it looping past and around the singularity." (That was
exactly what I was wondering by the way.) This leaves me confused
- isn't the Schwarzchild solution (discovered in 1916) supposed
to prove this?
I am about half way towards understanding your argument that
nothing can escape from within the event horizon. Aren't the GR
equations time symmetric? Also I don't understand the concept of
time flowing forwards. It is true that entropy increases in one
direction of time only but this is not due to any asymmetry in
the laws of physics (I can show that the laws of Newtonian
gravitation, Coulomb's electrostatics and classical magnetism are
time symmetric. Apparently GR and QM are as well though of course
I can't show this!)
The reason for the asymmetry is surely due to the universe having
asymmetric boundary conditions. For some reason we know that
10-20 billion years ago the entropy of the universe was zero at
the big bang. We have no such condition about any time in the
future. Therefore statistically entropy must increase away from
the big bang. This causes the perceived arrow of time.
So I am slightly confused by the "force that causes time to
pass". Perhaps the argument is that while reversing the arrow of
time requires an entropy decrease (which is statistically
unlikely), here because space is acting like time and vice versa,
reversing out of a black hole is equally unlikely (or
impossible?).
Many thanks for your time and patience,
Michael
Your points are good. Some comments on
them:
1) About the black hole. The wording from the book is slightly
misleading. It is true that the Schwartzchild solution shows that
you can't have orbits escaping from inside the event horizon. And
this was known long before the Penrose result. I think the key
idea in Penrose is that of "singularity". What Penrose proved
(with Hawking) is, I think, that if you have something behaving
like a black hole then you must have a singularity of spacetime
inside. The Schwartzchild solution does have a singularity in it,
but I think the Penrose result is more general.
2) About time symmetry. Actually I think the GR equations are
only time symmetric under certain conditions. Also, although the
Schrodinger equation is time symmetric, and this describes the
evolution of the wavefunction in QM, what is not symmetric is the
collapse of the wavefunction. So it is not really true to say
that GR and QM are time symmetric, although this becomes quite a
complicated issue.
3) I am sorry that my wording was quite bad and I should have
used inverted commas to talk about "time flowing" and there
certainly isn't a "force" in the usual sense of the word. I
wasn't meaning to give a rigurous argument but just an idea. I
don't think the question is properly understood anyway. The point
is that if you just don't do anything time pases, you can't set
up a coordinate system in which time stays still (unless you are
a photon actually, travelling at the speed of light they have no
time). Space on the other hand you can set up to be still. This
is all a bit wolly but I think it is clear that there is a sense
in which time flows and space doesn't. What I am saying is that
once you pass the event horizon, these roles get inverted, and
space flows, and it drags you into the hole in the same way time
drags you into the future. Perhaps a proper discription of this
process will require entropy, I don't know, and I don't think
anyone does.
4) There is a book on special and general relativity, called
"Introducing Einstein's Relativity" by Ray D'Inverno which is
quite easy going and only assumes basic calculus and differential
equations and developes all the maths need for GR in a
straightforward way. If you have time, you might find it
interesting. I think you would find it accessible, with some work
of course. There is something nice about seing the math actually
happen.
Sean
Thanks, Sean.
I hadn't thought about the collapse of the wavefunction before in
the context of time symmetry. I'll take your word that this is
not reversible (although I was sure I remember reading Feynman
saying that the only law in physics that may not be time
reversible is the weak force and beta decay - maybe he was
ignoring the collapse).
I take your point about time not being able to stand still. It is
certainly true that the world-line of all particles other than
photons must occupy every point on the time axis once and only
once. The same cannot be said of the space axes. I think that a
full description would have to involve entropy, as the
"direction" time occurs in is not well-defined. (Of course later
events in time do happen later but this is just
tautological.)
Thanks for your help (and I'm sorry it's you answering all the
questions despite the fact that you started this
discussion),
Michael
I think it depends on whether u believe it or not. If you all want a good book on time, energy,space, i suggest " A Wrinkle In Time", a Newberry award winner.