De Moivre's Theorem: does it apply only to rationals?


By DHChandler (t448) on July 22, 1998 :

I understand that DeMoivre's theorem only applies to rational numbers.

My students are not convinced by this and wonder why it cannot apply to any real number ?


By Adam Wood (ajpw2) on July 26, 1998 :

Your students are right -- in fact it applies to any complex number, which include the reals.

However I believe de Moivre only proved it for rationals, and many (school) text books only seem to go that far.

The result for complex numbers follows from Euler's Formula:
eix = cos(x) + i sin(x)

Hope this helps,
Adam


By Eva on July 31, 1998 :
Dear David,

De Moivre's theorem says that

(cosx+isinx )n =cosnx+isinnx.

This is true for all integers n, and all complex numbers x.

The problem when n is not an integer is that cosnx is single-valued, whereas (cosx+isinx )n is many-valued.

Example: x=π/3, n=1/2. In this case

cosnx+isinnx=cos(π/6)+isin(π/6)=3/2+i/2

whereas (cosx+isinx )1/2 =[cos(π/3)+isin(π/3 )]1/2 =[1/2+i3/2 ]1/2 .

Now [±(3/2+i/2 )]2 =(3/2+i/2 )2 =(1/4)(3+i )2 =1/2+i3/2.

So we see that

(cosx+isinx )1/2 =±[cos(x/2)+isin(x/2)].

We have seen this in the case x=π/3, but it is true in general. Indeed, for any x (even complex x),

(±[cos(x/2)+isin(x/2 )])2 =(cosx/2+isinx/2 )2 = cos2 (x/2)- sin2 (x/2)+2isin(x/2).cos(x/2)=cosx+isinx.

Thus in general (cosx+isinx )1/2 =±[cos(x/2)+isin(x/2)].

A similar statement holds for all complex n , and all complex x : if n is not an integer, then (cosx+isinx )n is many-valued (it has infinitely many values if n is irrational), and one of these values is cosnx+isinnx. This is all that can be said.