De Moivre's Theorem: does it apply only to
rationals?
By DHChandler (t448) on July 22,
1998 :
I understand that DeMoivre's theorem only applies to rational
numbers.
My students are not convinced by this and wonder why it cannot
apply to any real number ?
By Adam Wood (ajpw2) on July 26,
1998 :
Your students are right -- in fact it
applies to any complex number, which include the reals.
However I believe de Moivre only proved it for rationals, and
many (school) text books only seem to go that far.
The result for complex numbers follows from Euler's
Formula:
eix = cos(x) + i sin(x)
Hope this helps,
Adam
By Eva on July 31, 1998 :
Dear David,
De Moivre's theorem says that
.
This is true for all integers
, and all complex numbers
.
The problem when
is not an integer is that
is single-valued,
whereas
is many-valued.
Example:
,
. In this case
whereas
.
Now
.
So we see that
.
We have seen this in the case
, but it is true in general. Indeed,
for any
(even complex
),
.
Thus in general
.
A similar statement holds for all complex
, and all complex
: if
is not an integer, then
is many-valued (it has
infinitely many values if
is irrational), and one of these values is
. This is all that can be said.