What is a Laplace transform?
This question arose in this
discussion .
By Dan Goodman (Dfmg2) on Wednesday,
August 2, 2000 - 12:49 am :
Simon, could you tell me what a Laplace
transform is? I'm reasonably well acquainted with Fourier
transforms and some of their properties, but not Laplace
transforms.
By Simon Judes (P2636) on Wednesday,
August 2, 2000 - 11:59 pm :
I can't give you any rigor on this, but essentially, they are just a real
version of Fourier transforms, i.e. the Laplace transform of a function f(x)
is: F(p)=ò0¥ f(x)exp(-p x)dx
The differences from the fourier transform are the real
exponential, and the lower limit of 0, which is obviously
necessary for the integral to converge for f(x)=sin(x) say.
In the same way as in the Fourier case, you can take the Laplace
transform of functions of x, to get functions of p. A common
notation for the Laplace transform of f(x) is L(f).
An example: the Laplace transform of f(x)=exp(k x) is
ò0¥ exp(x(k-p)) dx=1/(k-p)
Their usefulness in solving differential equations stems from
what happens when you take the laplace transform of the
differential of a function.
L(df/dx)=ò0¥exp(-p x) df/dx dx=pL(f)-f(x=0) (after integrating
by parts)
This is great, because by taking the Laplace transform of both
sides of an equation, we turn a DE into an algebraic equation. We
solve for L, as a function of p. Note also, that the lower limit
of zero means that the initial condition required is exactly the
one we usually specify, i.e. the conditions at t=0 say. You can
work out similar things for higher derivatives of f.
So now, once we have got L as a function of p, we can take the
inverse Laplace transform, which is the solution of the DE. There
is a problem here which that there is usually no unique inverse,
but fortunately in most situations, the inverse is only arbitrary
up to a null function. Since I am a physicist, I am allowed to
ignore those.
How to get the inverse function?
1. look it up in a table (I like this one)
2. use a Bromwich integral
3. numerical techniques
1 is best. 2 is quite nasty - it is a contour integral along an infinite
vertical line from g-i¥ to g+i¥ where g is a constant chosen
so as to put all the singularities of L on the left hand side of the vertical
line.
3. you must have had a silly DE to start off with
For normal linear 2nd order DEs, this is a very satisfying
method, because you get the complimentary function and the
particular integral at the same time rather than
separately.
If you want more rigor, I think you can treat the transform as a
linear operator on the Hilbert space of Lebesgue square
integrable functions, but I know nothing about that.
By Sean Hartnoll (Sah40) on Thursday,
August 3, 2000 - 02:04 am :
You can use Fourier transformations in
differential equations also. Whether Laplace or Fourier
transforms are more useful tends to depend on the equation in
question and the boundary/initial conditions. Laplace transforms
are more "natural" for exponential processes such as diffusion of
heat into a cold material whilst Fourier is more useful in
systems that are "wavey".
One advantage of the Laplace transform is that
more functions have a well-defined Laplace transform, because of
the negative exponential in the integrand. A disadvantage is that
you lose information for t< 0.
Inverting both Fourier and Laplace transformations is not too bad
if you are nimble with contour integration. Particularly in the
Laplace case it tends to reduce to being a sum of residues, as
long as there are no branch points.
Sean
By Simon Judes (P2636) on Thursday,
August 3, 2000 - 04:04 pm :
Yes, Fourier transforms can be used too. Which one is more
useful depends on what sort of initial conditions you know. If,
as in the case with the two armies, you want to specify the
conditions at some initial time and see what happens after that,
then Laplace transforms are most useful, because of the lower
limit of 0.
In the Fourier case, I think you need to work out the limit of f(x)exp(-i p x)
as x tends to ±¥. This might be useful if say you want to
calculate the electromagnetic field on an axis in the region of some
disturbance, an oscillating dipole perhaps. Then you know that far away from
the disturbance, you can take the field to be zero.
Simon