Integral of Gaussian function
By Graham Lee (P1021) on Thursday,
January 6, 2000 - 02:07 pm :
Can anyone prove that the definite integral between minus
infinity and infinity of the Gaussian function is 1?
'Cos I can't.
Love,
GL.
By Alex Barnard (Agb21) on Thursday,
January 6, 2000 - 02:27 pm :
If by the Gaussian function you mean something like
then here is how:
Consider instead the function
on the
,
-plane. What is
the integral of this over the whole plane? Well you can do the
and the
integrals separately and get that the answer is the square of the Gaussian
integral you wanted - so if we can do this new question then we will be able
to do the one you wanted.
Okay - the whole function is very rotationally symmetric about the origin so
we should change variables to plane polar coordinates
. The function
becomes
and the area-element
becomes
. So we
have to integrate:
from
..infinity and
..
Hopefully you will be able to do this integral and you'll see that the overall
integral is
.
So the original Gaussian integral had value equal to either
or
. But it was the integral of an always positive function and so
it must be the former.
AlexB.