0 π/2 x cos2n (x)dx


By Brad Rodgers on Wednesday, August 28, 2002 - 09:24 pm:

Is there a closed form evaluation for

0 π/2 x cos2n (x)dx,
for integer n in general? I can easily evaluate it for individual n, but I don't see the pattern...

Brad


By Yatir Halevi on Wednesday, August 28, 2002 - 11:01 pm:

I don't know if it helps,
but 0 π/2 x cos2n (x)dx+ 0 π/2 x sin2n (x)dx seems to have a connection to:

0 π/2 cos2n (x)dx which equals to:

0 π/2 sin2n (x)dx
although I can't pin-point it yet,

Yatir


By Brad Rodgers on Thursday, August 29, 2002 - 01:58 am:

It appears that (from your work, Yatir)

0 π/2 x( cos2n x+ sin2n x)dx=((2n)!/n !2 ) 4-n-1 π2 , and I'll have a go at proving this. There's obviously a link between this and the original integral, but in the latter, a rational term appears that I just can't seem to determine.

(Of course, if anyone proves this, and makes a decent conjecture about the rational term, it'd be fairly easy to prove by induction; the problem is making the decent conjecture)

Brad


By Ian Short on Thursday, August 29, 2002 - 10:39 am:
Sorry to butt in- Possibly by substituting y=π/2-x into 0 π/2 x sin2n xdx it becomes clear how to evaluate the integral in the previous message.

Ian


By Michael Doré on Thursday, August 29, 2002 - 04:37 pm:

Also, for the original integral In = 0 π/2 x cos2n xdx you can derive a reduction formula.

Write cos2n x= cos2n-2 x- cos2n-2 x sin2 x. So:

In = In-1 - 0 π/2 x cos2n-2 x sin2 xdx

Integrate the second term by parts taking u=xsinx and dv/dx= cos2n-2 xsinx, i.e. v=- cos2n-1 x/(2n-1). This gives

In = In-1 -1/(2n×(2n-1))- In /(2n-1)

i.e.

2n In =(2n-1) In-1 -1/(2n)