By Pooya Farshim (P2572) on Saturday,
June 3, 2000 - 08:05 pm :
Prove that:
I tried the trapezium rule but got stuck in the mid-way!
By Michael Doré (P904) on Wednesday, June 7,
2000 - 02:03 pm :
How about this?
Let
(By the way all integrals here are with respect to
and between 0 and 1.)
Integration by parts reveals that:
Provided
the first term on the right hand side will be zero after
the limits are applied, so we can then say:
By successive application of this formula we can evaluate
(for +ve
integral
) as:
Clearly
So
Now back to the problem.
can be written as
which can now be
expanded out using the infinite series. We get
Now the factorials will cancel with the factorials contained within the
s. The
will disappear and we are left with:
as required.
Yours,
Michael
By Pooya Farshim (P2572) on Wednesday,
June 14, 2000 - 09:33 pm :
Thanks Michael