If
then
If there are 3 positive numbers,
,
,
such that
, how
can it be proved that
?
Help!
x is not necessarily equal to y which is not necessarily equal
to z, x, y and z are all greater than 0. so for example you could
have x = 2.8 y = 0.1 and z = 0.1
Ah! The simplest proof I know uses a result called the
Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. This says that
for any real numbers
and
.
In your case just put
,
, and similarly
,
etc. Then we get
.
So if
,
, and so on.
David
Thanks everso!
Just two questions, how do you deduce the last line of your proof
from the second to last line, and also what is the proof behind
the cauchy schwartz equation
Well, we have shown that two numbers
and
have product at least 9; so they can't both be less than 3.
To prove the inequality is a little difficult; there are various proofs. The
standard one is like this:
Consider the quadratic
If you expand it out, it becomes
Now, we know this can't possibly be negative, because it's a sum of three
squares and squares are always positive.
If we have a quadratic of the form
, then this is zero when
. You may have come across this at school; it's a
standard formula.
Right: here is the (slightly) clever bit. If the quadratic in
above has
two distinct roots, it must be negative in between them. We know this can't
happen because it's a sum of squares. So the formula must give either only
one root, which can only happen if
, or no real roots at all,
which happens if
.
So, let's calculate this quantity
(it's called the discriminant) for
the quadratic above. It turns out to be
So this expression must be
, i.e.
which is the C-S inequality.
David
|
By Michael Doré on Monday, February 18, 2002 - 04:09 pm:
|
Alternatively you can use the AM-GM
inequality. AM-GM says that for any positive numbers, the
arithmetic mean is greater than or equal to their geometric mean.
So:
(x + y + z)/3 > = (xyz)1/3
(1/x + 1/y + 1/z)/3 > = (xyz)-1/3
Multiplying these together we get:
(x + y + z)(1/x + 1/y + 1/z)/9 > = 1
and then the solution follows as in David's proof.