Can anyone prove this:
x + y + z < = (xyz)1/3 (x/y + y/z + z/x)
Obviously we assume xyz=1 to get rid of awkward terms, but where
do we go from there?
One might almost say that the trouble with this inequality is
that it has the wrong kind of symmetry. It is symmetric under a
cyclic permutation of the variables, which means that any
asymmetric approach gets extremely messy extremely quickly, but
it's not symmetric enough to do anything useful with.
I did find a "solution" by eliminating z, mutltiplying through to
get a cubic in x with coefficients in y, taking the discriminant
to get another polynomial in y, factoring that and taking the
discriminant again, but this amounts to bludgeoning the problem
to death, and would be almost impossible without a computer
algebra program.
So what is the "nice" derivation I have been missing?
David Loeffler
David,
I think you need x,y,z positive.
Anyway, have you heard of the AM-GM inequality? If so then you
can use this.
You have to play around a bit before it is obvious how it should
be applied though. This is the only way I can see of getting it
to work. First of all divide both sides by (xyz)1/3 .
Now let a = x/y, b = y/z and c = z/x. Substitute in and you're
left needing to show:
(a/c)1/3 + (b/a)1/3 + (c/b)1/3
< = a + b + c.
Now abc = (x/y)(y/z)(z/x) = 1. So insert a factor of
(abc)1/3 into the left hand side. (This makes the
order of each side the same, so helps when applying AM-GM.)
Therefore we need to show:
(a2 b)1/3 + (b2 c)1/3
+ (c2 a)1/3 < = a + b + c.
Now by AM-GM (a2 b)1/3 < = 2/3a +
1/3b
Also:
(b2 c)1/3 < = 2/3b + 1/3c
and:
(c2 a)1/3 < = 2/3c + 1/3a
Adding these three inequalities together gives the required
result.
Michael