Arithmetic mean - geometric mean inequality


By Brad Rodgers (P1930) on Monday, October 2, 2000 - 08:51 pm :

How do you prove that an arithmetic average is greater than or equal to a geometric average? This the same as showing that zn > = nz for all n natural numbers, and z greater than 1.

Thanks,

Brad


By Kerwin Hui (P1312) on Tuesday, October 3, 2000 - 12:14 pm :

I think we have done that before... Anyway, there are a few proofs. Here is how one works:

Let P(n) be the statement
(a1 +...+an )/n > = (a1 ...an )1/n

When n=1, the case is immediate.
When n=2, recall (sqrt(a1 )-sqrt(a2 ))2 > = 0 and simply rearrange to give the required inequality.
When n=2k , k> 1, we can show, by repeated use of the case n=2, that the inequality holds. e.g. let br =(a2r-1 +a2r )/2 and the induction step is immediate.

This leaves to prove that if P(n) is true then P(n-1) is also true. Substitute an =(a1 +...+an-1 )/(n-1) into P(n) and after a bit of rearranging, the result follows.

Sorry about the briefness but do write back if you are stuck.

Kerwin


By Michael Doré (P904) on Tuesday, October 3, 2000 - 0:59 pm :

By the way, this is not the same as zn > = nz for natural n and z greater than 1. In fact that is false in general. To be true we require zn-1 > = n for all z. But as z-> 1 the LHS-> 1 disproving the inequality for n> 1.

Another way of proving AM-GM is to simply consider:

y = [(a1 + ... + an )/n]/[a1 ...an ]^(1/n)

and then differentiate y with respect to an leaving all else constant, and set this to 0 to find minimum. The result you get immdiately shows the fraction is minimised when a1 = a2 = ... = an . Then equality occurs.