Hello everyone,
I'm pretty stuck with a proof assignment of mine, which states
that
1+x+x2 /(2!)+...+x2n /(2n)!=0, n> =0
does not have any real roots.
I know the keyword for this is induction,
but I have no idea how to continue with the
induction step after I've done the basic step and
induction assumption (1+x+...+x2n /(2n)!=0 doesn't
have any real roots).
Please help me out,
Marjo
As it's an assignment, I don't think I can tell you from the
start much more than to look at the derivative and specifically
the double derivative of this function. See what things you can
then draw intuitionally, next find a rigorous argument for
them...
Write again if you tried my hints and didn't get anywhere.
Marjo,
I shall assume you have done some calculus and know the second
derivative represents the convexity of a function. If you don't
understand these, write back and I'll explain them.
To ease my typing, I will set Pn (x)=1+x+x2
/2+...+x2n /(2n)!. Now our claim is Pn (x)
does not have any real roots for all non-negative integer
n.
First, the case n=0 is trivial.
Now suppose Pk-1 (x) is true (k> 0). We note that
Pk ''(x)=Pk-1 (x). But we know
Pk-1 (x) doesn't have any real root, so
Pk-1 (x)> 0 for all x. This means the graph of
y=Pk (x) is concave upwards (i.e. convex). Hence all
tangents lie below the the curve. Find the (unique) stationary
point of Pk (x). The final step is pretty easy to spot
and I'll leave it to you.
Kerwin
Interesting - I have seen this before in
a magazine (it was, you may be interested to know, a problem in
the selection round of the 1995 Estonian Mathematical Olympiad),
but I know of no elementary proof by induction. However, it can
be proved rather elegantly using Taylor's theorem. Do you know
this result?
David
There is a reasonably elementary (no calculus) proof using the
"Upper and Lower Bound Rule" and simply using a recurrance
relation to prove that for x > -2n, Pn (x) >
Pn-1 (x), which by assumption, is greater than 0. I
didn't mention it because I would think the upper and lower bound
rule is nonstandard, and, to be honest, I have no idea how to
prove it. I don't think it's as elegant as the proof I hinted to
above, but it doesn't require calculus. If anyone's interested
though, I can show the proof...
Brad
This question is to Kerwin. I follow your argument all the way
to when you attempt to find the Unique stationary point for
Pk x. I differentiated Pk x, to get
1+x+...+x2n-1 which I put equal to 0 for the
stationary point, how do I know that the value of x given by the
solution of this polynomial is a unique value for the stationary
point? Even then, I then have to go on to substitute this value
of x into the original equation to show that it doesn't go below
the x axis - how do I find the value of this function at the x
value in question?
Amars,
The answer is - you don't find the value of the root of
Pk '(x). You only need to note that this root is
strictly negative. This root is unique because Pk
''(x) is never zero and is strictly positive, hence Pk
'(x) is strictly increasing. Let z be this root. Now we note that
Pk (x)º Pk
'(x)+x2n /(2n)! and the rest is simple.
Kerwin
Thank you all for your great advice!
I believe I can now continue with this.
Thanks,
Marjo