Does anyone know how to resolve (mathematically) Zeno's
paradox. It states that motion is impossible. To get from A to B,
you must pass through a point P halfway between A and B, then
pass through a point P1 halfway between P and B etc.
Thanks
James
Perhaps one of Zeno's even more confusing paradoxes is the
following. Consider a race between a tortoise and a hare. The
hare can run much faster than the tortoise so the tortoise has a
head start. In order to overtake the tortoise, the hare must
first reach the initial position of the tortoise. But as the
tortoise is also moving, by this time the tortoise will have
moved on in front of its initial position and will still be
ahead. So the hare must reach this new position -but by the time
it does the tortoise will have moved further forward. And so on.
Therefore it is impossible for the hare to catch up.
This is normally resolved in the same way as the above -while it
is true that the hare must try to catch up with the tortoise an
infinite number of times, the time it takes to do so forms a
geometric progression with a convergent infinite sum. But I still
find this confusing -the formula a/(1-r) for the sum of an
infinite geometric progression is actually defined as the limit
of the partial sum of the geometric progression as the number of
terms tends to infinity. The formula a/(1-r) is proved using the
limiting definition. But in the resolution of Xeno's paradox, we
are not actually using the limit of a geometric progression
-instead we need the actual sum of an infinite geometric
progression in order to work out how long the hare takes to catch
up. Can anyone explain why the limit happens to be equal to what
we want here?
Thanks,
Michael
This is basically the same problem as
the previous paradox, but looked at in a moving frame of
reference. But anyway, let's ignore that for a moment.
I think that the problem you have with this resolution of the
problem is saying that the limit of the partial sums is the
actual infinite sum. I don't know if the concept of an actual
infinite sum is meaningful, unless it is taken to mean the limit
of the partial sums.
In slightly more physical terms, how about this procedure. Choose
any distance bigger than 0, call it e
say. However small this distance is, we can find a time less than
1 whereby the hare is closer than e to
the tortoise. This is true for every e
> 0, so it seems as though you can then say that the time it
takes to reach the tortoise must be less than or equal to 1.
Otherwise, if it took 2 seconds or more for instance, we could
ask how far away the hare was at time t=1.5. This distance must
be bigger than 0, let's call it e .
But we know that we can find a time less than 1 where the
distance is less than e , so in fact,
it cannot have any position at this time, a contradiction. The
only resolution to this contradiction is that he reaches it at
time 1.
I hope that provided some physical intuition to why we say that
the actual sum is the same as the limit of the partial sums, but
if I've been unclear (which is certainly possible), just ask
again.
Thanks for that. That all made sense and has improved my
understanding. I guess the way to look at it is: as the number of
steps tends to infinity, the time tends to T and the distance
tends to S, where T is the time it takes for the hare to catch up
and S is their displacement when it has done so. Therefore as
time -> T then distance -> S. Now as distance is a
continuous function of time, when time = T, distance = S as we
wanted. It just seemed a bit strange that nowhere else in maths
do you encounter the infinite geometric progression without it
actually being a limit that you're calculating ...
Thanks for clearing that up,
Michael