I would appreciate help proving that-
13 +23 +...+n3
=[n(n+1)/2]2
I can do it using induction but i am interested in seeing a
different proof.
We know that
|
n å k=0 | xk=(1-xn)/(1-x) |
|
n å k=1 | k xk = x(xn+1-n xn - xn + 1)/(x-1)2 |
You could try starting from
n4 - (n-1)4 = 4n3 + (terms in
n2 and lower powers). If you already have the
summations for 12 + ... + n2 and so on, you
can get the one for n3 . But induction is MUCH
quicker.
David
How about this:
|
å | = |
n å 1 |
| n4=4 |
å | x3 - 6 |
å | x2+4 |
å | x-n |
| n4=4 |
å | x3-6(n(2n1)(n+1)/6)+4(n(n+1)/2)-n |
| Þ 4 |
å | x3=n(n3+2n2+n)=n2(n+1)2 |
| Þ |
å | x3=n2(n+1)2/4 |
Julian, your method is actually a famous method to find the
sum of powers...
Yatir
This is another method to solve the problem.....
assume...
13 +23 +33 +....+n3
=A+Bn+Cn2 +Dn3 +En4
+Fn5 ........... ----- (1)
replace n by n+1,then
13 +23 +33 +....+n3
+(n+1)3 =A+B(n+1)+C(n+1)2
+D(n+1)3 +E(n+1)4 +F(n+1)5
............. ------ (2)
then (2)-(1) gives,
(n+1)3 =B+C(2n+1)+D(3n2
+3n+1)+E(4n3 +6n2 +4n+1)+F(5n4
+....)+.............
This equation being true for all integral value of n,the
coefficients of the respective powers of n on each side must be
equal;thus F and all succeeding coefficients must be equal to
zero..
therefore,
n3 +3n2 +3n+1=B+C(2n+1)+D(3n2
+3n+1)+E(4n3 +6n2 +4n+1)
Comparing the coefficients we get,
4E=1 .......... (I)
6E+3D=3 ....... (II)
4E+3D+2C=3 .... (III)
E+D+C+B=1 .... (IV)
Solving I,II,III and IV,we get
E=1/4
D=1/2
C=1/4
B=0
therefore,from 1,
13 +23 +33 +....+n3
=A+(n2 /4)+(n3 /2)+(n4 /4)
to determine A,put n=1 and we get A=0
therefore,
13 +23 +33 +....+n3
=(n2 /4)+(n3 /2)+(n4 /4)
rearrange the RHS and we get,
13 +23 +33 +....+n3
=[n(n+1)/2]2
hence proved...
love arun
P.S--> this question can also be solved by another method by
finding the recurring relation...
Julian, this is what I was suggesting in
the third message in this thread.
The usefulness of this approach is that it provides an immediate
inductive proof that all the f's exist 1k + ... +
nk is a polynomial of degree k+1 in n. We can then
just find the coeffs by solving simultaneous equations.
Incidentally, of course if the equations have a solution, this
implies existence as well!
David
whoops, completely missed that message, sorry David!..I think
it's quite a neat way to derive it though. I quite dislike
proving things by induction because it requires you know an
equation to begin with, I remember thinking earlier on this year
how silly proving De Moivre by induction was, as De Moivre
certainly wouldn't have know the formula before deriving it (I
mean, it's not obvious is it? You'd think expanding the brackets
would reveal a really complicated binomial expansion..)
I can't believe I entirely missed your post!
Julian