f Function
By Mary-Ellen Lynall on Saturday, February
02, 2002 - 01:43 pm:
Why does
f(p)=f(2p) where p is an odd number?
Why does
2f(e)=f(2e) where e is an even number?
Why is f(n) always even when n is bigger than 2?
By Yatir Halevi on Saturday, February 02,
2002 - 07:09 pm:
Your first question:
let n be a positive integer with the following prime
factorization:
n=p1 k1 p2
k2 ...pi
ki
for example: 10=22 52
The f function for this n is defined as the following:

If n is odd, so none of the primes (p1 ,p2
,...,pi ) are even. But 2n is even, and its prime
factorization is:
n=2p1 k1 p2
k2 ...pi
ki
Taking the f function we get:

So f(n)=f(2n) (when n is odd)
Second question:
Trying doing it yourself, based on what I did just now. If you'll
need more help, don't hesitate to ask.
Third question:
(This is taken from "Elementary Number Theory" by David M
Burton)
Assume that n is a power of 2: n=2k with k ³ 2
f(n)=f(2k)=2k(1-(1/2))=2k-1
an even integer. If n isn't a power of 2, then it is divisible by an odd
prime p, we therefore can write n this way: n=pk m k ³ 1 and
.
The f function is a multiplicative function meaning, f(u v)=f(u)f(v)
if
.
So we have:
f(n)=f(pk)f(m)=pk-1f(m)
which is even because 2 divides (p-1), because p is odd and therefore (p-1)
is even.
And again if something is not clear enough....ask.
Yatir
By Mary-Ellen Lynall on Monday, February
04, 2002 - 04:55 pm:
Thankyou very much for your answers. They were very helpful.