Can you prove that
sqrt(1+2sqrt(1+3sqrt(1+4sqrt...............
is equal to three?
Is there a generalised method of tackling series or sums similar
to this for, say nth roots? What if those nth roots were complex
numbers?
You can imagine the above series as being represented by an
infinitude of square root signs. What if, instead of square root
signs, I had brackets which would place their contents to the
power of n, for example:
(x+1(x+2(x+3(x+4(x+5(x+6....)2 )2
)2 )2 )2 )2
)2 ?
Obviously, for some x, the above might tend to infinity, but when
might it converge and what will it's value then be?
Also, instead of going up in consecutive numbers, what if I went
up in squares or cubes?:
sqrt(1+1sqrt(1+4sqrt(1+9sqrt(1+.........
Thanks for any answers given for these series!
Has anyone got any ideas on the things that Anon is asking
about? I remember reading that Ramanujan posted the question to
some mathematical journal and that no-one could answer it for
quite a while, so I imagine that it's not an easy problem,
although very interesting.
How can we show that
sqrt(1+x x sqrt(1+(x+1) x sqrt(1+...))) = x+1?
I know this discussion is quite old now, but I'm a new member
and just came across this about two weeks ago while looking
around. I found it very interesting and so tried to work it out.
I was able to find a way to get to the solution and so I just
couldn't resist posting it.
Considering that the solution for Ramanujan's series was already
given in the message as : sqrt(1+x x sqrt(1+(x+1) x sqrt(1+...)))
= x+1; I was able to formulate a way to prove/find it. I did this
by forming a "difference equation" or "recurrence relation".
Here's how
:-
Consider that Fx =sqrt(1+x x sqrt(1+(x+1) x
sqrt(.....))). So we shall have Fx 2
=1+xFx+1 . Now the problem has been reduced to the
solution of a difference equation. Unfortunately this is a
non-linear difference equation with variable coefficients. But
considering that the solution is known to us, or even if the form
of the solution is known, we can assume it to be Fx
=ax+b, where a and b are constants to be determined.
Substituting this value of Fx in the above equation,
then equating the coefficients of various powers of x, we find
that a=b=1 are the only possible values. Thus leading to
Fx =x+1 - the required solution!! Note that even if we
"guess" Fx in a more general manner as Fx
=a.px .x + b.qx , although it becomes a bit
more complicated Fx still comes out to be (x+1). I
guess, a similar line of attack will lead to solutions for most
of the series mentioned by Anon above, even if the order of
equations or solutions may vary.
There's a problem with the above. What Ashish has shown is that if Fx is of the form ax + b then Fx = x + 1 as required. It is certainly true that Fx = x + 1 does satisfy his difference equation so it is plausible. But Fx = x + 1 is certainly not the only solution. For example, set F1 = 2. The recurrence relationship now gives us values of F for x = 2,3,4,... However if we were to plot a graph of F against x then we could join up the curve between x = 1 and x = 2 with any continuous curve which starts at (1,2) and (2,3). This would then automatically induce a continuous curve between x = 2 and x = 3 (from the recurrence relationship) and between x = 3 and x = 4, etc. But there are so many different ways of joining up (1,2) and (2,3) so there are loads and loads of other solutions to the recurrence relationship and we need somehow to prove that our one is the one that corresponds to the original expression. It seems very tricky.
Hello Michael,
I do see your point. But I had even tried it with a more general
guess of a.x.px +b.qx , since in linear
difference equations we have a complementary function of the type
c1 x ax +c2 x bx ..etc; and the solution
turned out to be x+1 again.
Also, I haven't been able to solve the other 2 equations, since I
didn't have the right "guesses" available to me. I'll try to find
some reference that helps in solving non-linear difference
equations. In the mean time I think, we should assume a solution
of the form Fx = a0 xx0 +
a1 xx1 + a2 x x2 +
a3 x x3 + .... Here a0
,a1 ,a2 etc are constants. Most functions
can be expressed this way (from Taylor's expansion). And if we
then replace this in the difference equation and solve for
a0 ,a1 ,a2 ... using the initial
conditions my guess is we'll end up with x+1. But I haven't tried
it yet, since I'm quite busy with my exams right now. But I'll
try to do it soon and post whatever I get out of it. Maybe we'll
need to include negative coefficients as well !? I'll see. But my
guess is that x+1 is the only solution.
In the mean time here's something curious that I did. I made a
program that assumes a value of Fn , n> > x and
calculates Fx from it. It turned out that for n= 50,
100 ... etc and values of Fn assumed over a very wide
range, the value of F1 turns out to be very close to 2
(of the order 10-10 or smaller)!! Similarly for other
Fx that I tried. Amazingly stabilizing! That makes me
tend to believe that x+1 is the right and distinct
solution.
I do agree that for an infinite number of initial conditions
there would be infinite different solutions to the equation. But
I think that there's always a unique solution, given an initial
condition with sufficient constants. Here, I believe that one
constant is sufficient since Fx is defined in terms of
Fx+1 and some coefficients.
Ashish
Michael is not saying the answer is not
x+1. He just said that you have NOT proved the answer is x+1 for
all x. You have guessed what the solution form might be, but
there may be other solutions which are not in your form which
also satisfies the recurrence. In other words, you have to prove
that your solution is the unique solution of the (non-linear)
difference equation. However, this is not true, and you probably
have to go back to the original definition of Fx and
show that Fx , as a limit of a sequence, converges to
the limit x+1, for any x> -1.
Kerwin
I don't have any idea how to go about solving such equations
without making initial guesses. I think that's how linear
difference equations are also solved, although it's not quite
that obvious. Maybe there exists a solution with one (or more)
arbitrary constants that always satisifies the equation. But I
just can't seem to prove that or even otherwise. .
Still, I'll keep trying.
Ashish
Hi Ashish,
There's certainly nothing wrong with making guesses at the
solution to difference equations. However we do need to prove
that we have the correct solution.
If you are dealing with a linear discrete recurrence
relationship, e.g.
f(n+2) = 5f(n+1) - 6f(n)
where f is from Z -> R you can solve this by guessing
solutions. Specifically you guess solutions of the form
an and you come up with 2n and
3n . Then you can show that A 2n + B
3n also satisfies this recurrence relationship.
Setting g(n) = (3f(0) - f(1)) 2n + (f(1) - 2f(0))
3n - f(n) you obtain:
g(0) = 0
g(1) = 0
g(n) = 5g(n-1) - 6g(n-2)
Therefore g(n) = 0 for all integers n
Hence it is true for all integers n that f(n) = (3f(0) - f(1))
2n + (f(1) - 2f(0)) 3n so we have proven
that our choice of functional form for f is correct - it is the
only possible form.
So essentially we have proved uniqueness. But it is clear no that
uniqueness theorem exists for your recurrence relationship. Your
equation only relates Fx to Fx+1 but F is
from R to R! Therefore essentially, f can do anything it wants
when x is in [1,2] provided it is continuous and hits the right
values at the endpoints.