As I understand it, there are at least three proofs that if n
divides m, then fn divides fm , where
fn is the nth Fibonacci number. Does anyone know any
of them?
Thanks for any help.
Here is a sketch of a proof. Let me know if any blanks need
filling in (I am assuming you have come across modular
arithmetic):
If F(n) is the nth Fibonacci number, then consider what the
sequence looks like mod F(n). Clearly, the nth term will be zero
mod F(n).
Now F(1)=1 and F(2)=1. Can you see that if we had started with
F(1)=k and F(2)=k for any integer, k, that the nth term of that
series would still be zero modulo F(n)?
Now think about what the n+1th and n+2th terms of the Fibonacci
series are modulo F(n). Can you see that they are equal?
Can you therefore see that F(2n) must also be zero mod F(n)? We
can keep repeating the argument to show F(3n), F(4n) etc are
similarly equal to 0 mod F(n).
In other words, F(n) divides F(m) where m is a multiple of
n.
Andre
There is a second way of proving it, if you care:
As you know, the Fibonacci numbers obey the recurrence
relationship: F(n+2)=F(n)+F(n-1)
Look for an explicit solution of the form
F(n)=pn . Substituting into the difference equation
above gives p=(1+50.5 )/2,p=(1-50.5
)/2.
Call these values a & b. Fitting F(1)=F(2)=1 gives us:
F(n)=(1/50.5 )(an -bn ).
If we now consider F(m)/F(n) (your original question) we
have
F(m)/F(n)=(am -bm )/(an
-bn )
Provided m is a multiple of n this factors algebraically:
F(m)/F(n)= am-n +(am-2n )(bn
)+...+bm-n
Finally, you need to convince yourself that this polynomial in
a,b is actually an integer. You can do this by looking at the
symmetry of the result with respect to a & b and the form of
a and b. An alternative route is to observe that ab=-1 (an
integer), and that ak +bk is an integer for
all integer k.
Andre
And for a third alternative, it follows
immediately from the explicit formula:
Fn = Lk Fn-k - (-1)k
Fn-2k
where Lk is the kth Lucas number, given by
Fk+1 + Fk-1 . This is derived somewhere in
the following
discussion .