Fibonacci property

By Ngoc Tran on Sunday, November 10, 2002 - 07:30 am:

We all know about Fibonacci sequence. in general: F(n) = F(n-1) + F(n-2). Can you prove that: F(2n)/F(n) is an integer? i.e. F(2n) is divisible by F(n)

Thanks,

By David Loeffler on Sunday, November 10, 2002 - 10:15 am:

I know of two ways to do this.

One is to use Binet's formula for the nth term of the sequence, and then prove that the resulting horrible mess is an integer. This is not particularly good fun.

Another is to use modular arithmetic. Try writing out the values of Fn+1 , Fn+2 and so on mod Fn , and keep going - if I remember correctly there is a general pattern that will allow you to write down F2n mod Fn and show it is zero.

David

By Ian Short on Sunday, November 10, 2002 - 10:17 am:

Start from F(2n) and back substitute:

F(2n)=F(2n-1)+F(2n-2)
=2F(2n-2)+F(2n-3)
=3F(2n-3)+2F(2n-4)
.......

and you end up with,

F(2n)=F(n)(F(n+1)+F(n-1)).

Ian

By Ian Short on Sunday, November 10, 2002 - 10:22 am:

The resulting sequence is a Fibonnaci type sequence that you would get starting from the numbers g(1)=1 and g(2)=3.

Where g(n)=F(2n)/F(n).

Ian

By David Loeffler on Sunday, November 10, 2002 - 12:09 pm:

In other words, it is the Lucas sequence.

David

By Kerwin Hui on Sunday, November 10, 2002 - 04:28 pm:
The way with Binet's formula is not too bad if you know enough about quadratic fields (or Galois Theory). We have

F(n)=(tn-t-n)/Ö5

where t=(1+Ö5)/2 is the golden ratio. So we have

F(2n)/F(n)=(tn+t-n)

Now consider the map sending a+bÖ5 to a-bÖ5, a and b rational. This leaves the expression unchanged, so F(2n)/F(n) is rational (which you know already, but is not terribly obvious with all the t's lying around). Further, since t is a unit in the quadratic field Q(Ö5) (its minimal polynomial being X2-X-1), F(2n)/F(n) must also be an algebraic integer, which gives F(2n)/F(n) a rational integer. This method also tells you that you have the Lucas numbers.

Kerwin
By Andre Rzym on Sunday, November 10, 2002 - 09:41 pm:

Ngoc,

Your original problem can be generalised somewhat, namely to "If m is divisible by n, then Fm is divisible by Fn ".

Taking the modular arithmetic approach (as David describes) gives you this result straightforwardly.

Andre

By Ngoc Tran on Monday, November 11, 2002 - 06:13 am:

Thanks everyone for helping,
I got it now.