Divisibility by 11
By Christopher Nicolson on Monday, August
19, 2002 - 09:07 pm:
About a year ago I discovered something that I couldn't
explain whilst mucking about during my lunch break last
summer.
If you have a number and you subtract the lead digit into the
subsequent digit and that answer into the next digit, and so on
and you end up with a total of 0 at the end of the number then it
is divisible by 11
This sounds slightly proposterous, but consider 143 (we know this
is divisble by 11)
4-1=3
3-3=0
Can anybody explain this, is it wrong or what?
It has been bugging me for a while
Cheers,
Christopher
By Paul Smith on Monday, August 19, 2002 -
10:46 pm:
This is true, although there are questions of necessity and
sufficiency.
Consider a number
written
. What you are
saying is that if
then
is divisible
by 11.
Firstly we can simplify this condition to give
. Now we note that
, where
is an integer. Since
, we have
,
and hence
. Thus
is divisible by 11 if
, but also if it
equals 11 (e.g. 902) or 22 (e.g. 90904) or ..., and therefore your condition
is sufficient, but not necessary for divisibility by 11.
Hope this helps.
Paul
By Julian Pulman on Monday, August 19,
2002 - 11:01 pm:
Well, say we have a number
, where the first digit is
, and generally
the
digit is
(e.g.
,
,
,
) then:
Since
,
Clearly, it is a sufficient condition for divisibility by 11 if
the difference and sum of successive terms has zero magnitude,
since all numbers divide 0. Furthermore, we require only that the
sum of the odd digits minus the sum of the even digits be a
multiple of 11.
Clearly, your example works because the sum of odd digits is 1+3
= 4, and the sum of even is 4, their difference is zero. Consider
16060418, and observe (1 + 0 + 0 + 1) - (6 + 6 + 4 + 8) = -22 =
-2x11
Hence, 16060418 is divisible by 11.
(11x1460038)
Julian