Solution Toni's not for publishing
The maximum who can score 100 occurs if the rest score as few marks
as possible, so if p candidates score 100 and the rest score zero
then 100p=50×60 so p=30. The standard deviation is given
by
s2 =
å
(xi-
x
2
)
n
=
30×402 + 20×60250
= 2400
so s = 20Ö6 = 50.0 to 3
s.f.
If p candidates score 100 then, as
å
(xi-60)2 = 50 × s2
, if s = 8, we know 402p < 3200 so p < 2.
Clearly p cannot be equal to 2 because the marks of the remaining
48 candidates will contribute to the standard deviation but we now
suppose the standard deviation is a little higher, say 8.2. Then
402p < 50×8.22 so p < 2.10125. As p is a whole number it is
at most 2.
If 2 candidates score 100 then the remaining 48 score 2800 between
them for the mean to be 60. To minimise the variance they should all
score marks as close to 60 as possible. Dividing 2800 by 48 gives
58.3 to 3 s.f. Suppose q candidates score 59 and (48-q) score 58
then
59q + 58(48-q) = 2800
so q=16. Hence the mean mark is 60 if 2 candidates score 100, 16
score 59 and 32 score 58. In this case the standard deviation is
given by
s2 =
2×402 + 16×12 + 32×2250
= 66.88.
So the standard deviation is 8.178 to 3 d.p.
The number of candidates who score 100 is less than 50s2/ 402 so if s = 4Ö2 this is less than 50×32/ 1600 = 1 so it is impossible for any candidates to have scored 100
because the scores of the other 49 candidates also contribute to the
standard deviation.
So with a standard deviation of 4Ö2 (approx 5.657 to 3 d.p)
or less no candidates could have scored 100.