For this question I would like to make the following
assumptions:
1) Space and time are continuous.
2) Newton's laws of motion hold.
3) Matter is made of a very large but finite number of point-like
particles.
Let the position vector of an arbitrary particle be xi +
yj + zk from a fixed origin where i j k are
perpendicular unit vectors. Imagine that spontaneously the position
of all such particles is changed to (x + y)i + yj +
zk. In other words shift all particles a distance d
horizontally where d is the vertical distance of the particle from
the origin.
What difference, if any, would people in this universe observe?
Would it be possible for such people to perform an experiment to
determine that the shift had occurred?
Thank you,
Michael
This might not be what you want to hear, but I think that you have an implicit assumption, that a fixed origin can exist. I think that the best you can do is to look at things relative to some frame of reference which will have to be defined in terms of something to do with the positions of particles if we are actually to observe it. If everything was translated, then so would our frame of reference, and so we wouldn't notice anything, as all the relative positions are exactly the same. Someone with some knowledge of general relativity might be able to correct me on these points.
Many thanks for your prompt reply.
I agree that it is meaningless to talk of a fixed origin if all
particles are translated by the same amount. However here, I am
translating particles by different amounts - it depends on their
vertical displacement. In effect I am swapping the vector j
for i + j. I am not certain but I think that under the
assumptions I made there it still wouldn't be possible to detect a
change.
Thanks again,
Michael
Sorry, I forgot to mention that the velocities of all the
particles are changed in exactly the same way, at the same time
that the positions are altered. (So that a particle moving with
velocity ui + vj + wk changes to velocity (u +
v)i + vj + wk.) If the velocities were
unaltered it would clearly be possible to detect the change in the
position. If a particle was at (0,0,0) and was heading for a
stationary particle at (0,1,0) then when the swap occurred the
second particle would now be at (1,1,0) and the first particle
would be heading for (0,1,0) still. When the particles didn't
collide you would be able to detect that something strange had
happened.
If you do alter the velocities appropriately I suspect that it
would be impossible to detect any difference but I'm not really
sure at all. Is it possible to generalise the set of
transformations for which no change can be detected? Clearly
transformations such as xi + yj + zk going
to:
(x + A)i + (y + B)j + (z + C)k
don't make a difference. I believe the same is true for it going
to
A(xi + yj + zk)
or even
Axi + Byj + Czk. Also swapping around the
is js and ks will not be detectable but I'm
not too sure when you actually mix the perpendicular vectors
together.
Thanks,
Michael
Doh! I didn't notice it wasn't a straight
translation, sorry about that. The first thing to say is that there
is no absolute frame of reference, so you would have to make this
transformation from some particular frame of reference, but you
have already said this. I'm pretty sure you can't do these
transformations under general relativity, as the maximum speed is
c, the speed of light, but your question was about Newtonian
mechanics, let's see if we can get anywhere with that.
First off, you can make a fixed rotation, fixed translation, or
translate over time without it being observable. This is because
they are inertial frames of reference.
Any transformation you apply to your position vectors will also
need to be applied to your velocity vectors, otherwise there will
obviously be a way to detect the change.
Onwards, your transformation will be detectable I think, here's
why. Imagine you have a very heavy particle at 0, and another
particle in orbit about it at a distance r in the plane z=0, wait
until the particle is at a point (0,r,0) travelling with velocity
(rw,0,0) where w is the angular velocity. Afterwards, the position
will be (r,r,0) and the velocity will be (rw,0,0). However, a particle in orbit always has a
velocity vector perpendicular to its position vector, which is not
true after the transformation, so it will no longer be in a
circular orbit, this will be detectable.
I think that (x,y,z)->(Ax,Ay,Az) will be detectable, although I
can't think of a way to do so at the moment. I think that the
transformations above are the only ones that will be work.
Well I am not completely sure whether the particle moving on the
ellipse would look any different from the circle considering that
the equipment used to measure it will have also become
lopsided.
I think that things may well look instantaneously the same but you
could actually perform experiments to tell that the transformation
had occurred. For example you could have a massive particle at
(0,0,0) and two light identical particles at (1,0,0) and (0,1,0).
All 3 particles are intially stationary. If there were no
transformation then the light particles would collide with the
massive particle at the same time as one another due to
gravitation, however if there is a transformation then the one at
(1,0,0) would collide first as it is nearer than the one at
(1,1,0).
The same goes for (x,y,z) to (Ax,By,Cz) – I thought this
would not make a difference at first because in special relativity
if a rocket is travelling close to the speed of light, its contents
are squashed in one dimension only relative to Earth (the dimension
the motion occurs in). Yet anybody inside won't notice any
difference. This transformation seemed to be like (x,y,z) to
(Ax,y,z).
However there is an actual squashing of space in special relativity
and this is rather different from simply decreasing the separation
of the particles. So perhaps I should change the question so that
actual space is changed by the vector transformations rather than
just the positions of the particles. This means that when you
calculate the forces between particles using the inverse square law
you would have to take account of the fact that the space was
stretched/squashed. I think that now the transformation (x,y,z) to
(Ax,By,Cz) is undetectable.
Thanks,
Michael
If the particle was moving on an ellipse,
then the focus would be where the particle is, but the centre
wouldn't be, this change would be detectable.
As to the squashing of space, I'm not really competent enough to be
able to answer it, but I suspect that any such transformation would
reduce to "If you suitably changed all physical laws so that the
change was undetectable, then the change would be undetectable",
which isn't that impressive.
Nice idea though, it would be nice to think that the universe is
constantly changing in bizarre ways which we didn't even know
about.
Yes, but as you say, if no-one can detect/observe the change it
is fairly meaningless.
For the (x,y,z) to (Ax,Ay,Az) case I think that maybe if you
reduced all the velocities of the particles by a factor of sqr(A)
and didn't alter any laws of physics then the change would be
undetectable. For example with A = 2, everything I can think of
would happen 2sqr(2) times more slowly - for example the period of
a pendulum, the period of a planet on a circular orbit, the time a
ball takes to hit the ground. This doesn't sound detectable. For an
elliptical orbit, the rate at which the planet swept out area would
go up by sqr(2) - as this is equal to its instantaneous tangential
speed multiplied by its instantaneous distance. Now as the overall
area for a period goes up by 4, the orbital time goes up by
4/sqr(2) which is 2sqr(2) as we were hoping.
So is it possible to prove that this transformation is
undetectable? Well the force on every particle would go down by 4
(as all macroscopic forces are caused by inverse square forces so
if you scale the system up the forces quarter).
So imagine that these two universes were running alongside each
other. (I only do this for convenience.) Let f(t) be the position
vector of a particle in the first universe. In the second universe,
if all events are indeed just scaled up by 2 and slowed down by
2sqr(2), the position vector of the same particle is given by
2f(t/2sqr(2)). Differentiating once gives f'(t) and 1/sqr(2)
f'(t/2sqr(2)) so the velocity at each event is reduced by sqr(2) as
we were hoping. Differentiating again gives f''(t) and 1/4
f''(t/2sqr(2)) meaning that at each event the force is quartered.
Therefore non-detectability is consistent with the laws of
physics.
Applying A = -1 (reflection) suggests that every velocity should be
multiplied by -i and events should happen 1/sqr(2)i-1/sqr(2) times
quicker! Which is interesting although it may just mean rotate the
velocity by 90 degrees.
So if we allow allow ourselves to change the velocities but not the
laws of physics - so far the following transformations are
undetectable:
reflection
rotation
translation
enlargement (by uniform amount)
Is this as far as we can go?
Many thanks,
Michael
Under the enlargement transformation x->Ax things will indeed take longer, won't this mean that the change will be detectable? Atomic clocks work on the rate of radioactive decay (or maybe they don't, but it is something subatomic), I don't think that this would be affected by increasing the separation of the particles, so I think that we could observe a slowdown in time (balls falling to the ground for instance), and hence this transformation. Another possibility is transformations applied to 4D Minkowski space-time, i.e. where all "events" are given coordinates (x,y,z,t) where t is the time of the event. If t was suitably scaled up along with x,y,z might you be able to make it undetectable? For instance (x,y,z,t) to (Ax,Ay,Az,At)?
Well, I haven't really got a clue as to whether radioactive
decay would be affected by increasing the separation, because it is
governed by the strong and weak nuclear forces rather than
electrostatics. I think that scaling things up in the quantum
universe would cause you all sorts of problems because there is a
minimum length called the Planck length. If you scaled up atoms
then the ratio of the atomic radius to the Planck length would
change, and this would result in instability (for reasons I don't
understand). Which is why I am only considering this transformation
in the Newtonian universe where space and time are continuous and
all fundamental forces are inverse square.
As for scaling up Minkowski 4-D space-time... If you have two
identical planets in a circular orbit around their centre of mass,
the period is proportional to r3/2. So multiplying the
lengths and periods by 2 doesn't appear to work. So I think you
would have to scale it up like (x,y,z,t) to
(Ax,Ay,Az,Asqr(A)t).
Thanks for your help,
Michael