I've tried various substitutions which look promising but an
algebraic solution to this integral still elludes me. Please
help!
ò 1/(x + Ö(1-x2))
Try substituting x = sin(q). Then it is
I = ò cos q dq/(sin q + cos q).
Now this is a fairly well known, and moderately difficult,
integral; it is one of the questions in Dr Siklos's book of
practice STEP questions (IIRC). You can evaluate it in one of two
ways: substitute t = tan q/2 and wade
through lots of partial fractions; or by a cunning trick -
define
I1 = ò cos
q dq/(sin
q + cos q)
I2 = ò sin
q dq/(sin
q + cos q)
Now I1 + I2 = ò dq = q + C; and I1 - I2 =
ò (cos q - sin q)/(sin
q + cos q)
Now the numerator of the integrand is the derivative of the
denominator; so I1 - I2 = log( sin
q + cos q ) +
D.
If you add these two equations together, we get
I = I1 = 1/2 q + 1/2 log( sin
q + cos q ) +
E
(E is some new arbitrary constant = 1/2(C+D).)
So that is your integral: 1/2 sin-1(x) + 1/2 log (x +
Ö(1-x2) ) + E.
David