I have answered quite a few questions on the well-definedness
of, say, a function. I just wanted some kind of a concrete
definition of what the term 'well-defined' means (this term crops
up quite a bit on past Part 1A Cambridge Tripos questions).
Thanks
Amars,
A function is well-defined if it makes sense. For example, if I
define a map of rationals to rationals by
f(a/b)=a2/b, a/b in Q
This will not make any sense since we will have f(1/2)=1/4 and
f(2/4)=1. Another example: if G is a group, and H is a normal
subgroup (i.e. gH=Hg for all g in G), then we can define a group
operation on G/H by
(gH)(kH)=(gk)H
and this is well-defined: If aH=bH and cH=dH, we have
b-1a and d-1c both in H. Now we have to show
(bd)-1(ac) is in H, which can be proven easily (you may
like to try this out). Formally, a function f(x) is well-defined if
it does not depend on the way we represent x.
Kerwin