could anyone please evaluate....
ò0 ¥[x3/(ex-1)]dx
love arun
I would suggest splitting up
x3/(ex - 1) as:
x3e-x/(1 - e-x) =
x3(e-x + e-2x + e-3x +
...)
i.e. a geometric series (which we can do since e-x <
1 for x > 0).
Note that ò0
¥x3e-nxdx =
ò0 ¥u3e-u/n
4 du = 6/n4.
So the answer is 6/14 + 6/24 + ... =
6z(4). I can't actually remember the
value of z(4) offhand, but it is well
known (it is a rational multiple of p4).
Well, that's some neat transformation there...beautiful.
I know that z(4)=p4/90
However, do you know a way of proving this...Michael?
love arun
Well, anyone know proof for z(4)=p4/90?
love arun
I know that it is not a proof
but i did see somewhere that:
z(2k)=22k-1p2kBk/(2k)!
k=1,2,3...
lets take k=2.
we get:
The second bernoulli number is 1/30
23p4/30*24=p4/90
Yatir
i know that formula...
i had given the link for that some months back..
this is the site..
http://numbers.computation.free.fr/Constants/Miscellaneous/bernoulli.html
love arun
I think it is easy if you're willing to
accept Euler's sine product. If we start with:
sin x = x(1 - x2/p2)(1 - x2/(4p2))...
then on taking logarithms and differentiating you get:
cot x = 1/x + S [1/(x +
rp) + 1/(x - rp)]
where r is taken over the naturals.
Differentiate each side 2n-1 times:
d2n-1/dx2n-1cot x = -(2n-1)!(1/x2n
+ S 1/(x + rp)2n + S 1/(x - rp)2n)
Bring the 1/x2n term to the other side then take the
limit as x->0:
lim(x->0)((d2n-1/dx2n-1cot x) +
(2n-1)!/x2n) = -2(2n-1)!z(2n)/p2n
Write cot x = i(e2ix + 1)/(e2ix - 1),
multiply through by -i and you get:
lim(x->0)(d2n-1/dx2n-1((e2ix +
1)/(e2ix - 1)) - i(2n-1)!/x2n) =
2i(2n-1)!z(2n)
So:
lim(x->0)(d2n-1/dx2n-1((e2ix +
1)/(2ix) * 2ix/(e2ix - 1)) - i(2n-1)!/x2n) =
2i(2n-1)!z(2n)
Setting y = 2ix and using the chain rule this becomes:
lim(y->0)(d2n-1/dy2n-1((ey +
1)/y * y/(ey - 1))*22n-1(-1)n+1i +
22n(-1)n+1(2n-1)!i/y2n) =
2i(2n-1)!z(2n) (*)
Note that (ey + 1)/y and y/(ey - 1) can both
be series expanded:
(ey + 1)/y = 2/y + 1 + y/2! + y2/3! +
y3/4!
y/(ey - 1) = B0 + B1y +
B2y2/2! + ...
where Bn is the nth Bernoulli number (using the well
fact that y/(ey - 1) is the generating function for the
Bernoulli numbers).
If you substitute these series in (*) and expand out the product
then you should find that the reciprocal terms cancel (so luckily
the function doesn't blow up at the origin) and then the final
result follows on applying the (well known??) identity:
n!Bn = Sn
r=1C(n,r)Br
which is easily proved by equating coefficients in the
identity:
x/(ex - 1) * ex = x + x/(ex -
1)
(ex+1)/(e2x - 1) = 1/(ex -
1).
Of course this can all be greatly speeded up for z(4).
Oops, ignore the penultimate line. And I think the identity is only for n > 1.
whoa!!pretty long proof....phew!!
thanks michael...