could any one please show that......
S¥ n = 1 tan-1[2/n2] =
3p/4
love arun
If you write
tan-1[2/n2] = arg(1 + 2i/n2) then
the left hand side becomes:
arg(1 + 2i/12) + arg(1 + 2i/22) + arg(1 +
2i/32) + ...
= arg[(1 + 2i/12)(1 + 2i/22)(1 +
2i/32)...]
(using the fact that arg x + arg y = arg xy).
It is then straightforward to evaluate the product in square
brackets using Euler's sine product, i.e.
sin x = x Pn=1¥(1
- x2/(n2p2)).
Then it only remains to take the argument, and hopefully that will
work out as 3p/4.
I think there's an alternative way of
doing this - I saw it in a book of problems ages ago.* It gave an
explicit form for S(n), the sum of the first n terms, as
tan-1 (p(n)/q(n)) where p and q were polynomials.
After calculating the first few S(n) we find that p(n) = n(n+3) and
q(n) = (n-2)(n+1); it is easy to check that tan-1
(p(n+1)/q(n+1)) - tan-1 (p(n)/q(n)) = (p(n+1)/q(n+1) -
p(n)/q(n)) / (1 + p(n)p(n+1)/q(n)q(n+1)) simplifies down to
2/(n+1)2, as required. So having checked that the first
few S are right, this follows for all n by induction.
Hence the infinite sum is equal to limn->¥ tan-1 -n(n+3)/(n+1)(n-2) =
tan-1(-1) = 3p/4.
(PS. It was "The Red Book of Mathematical Problems", by Williams
and Hardy, Dover 1996, problem 26; but I think they got it from
someone else. Their method was actually rather different from mine
above, as they dealt with odd-numbered terms and even-numbered
terms separately.)
Michael and David,
Thanks for these smooth and easy answers!!!
The solution I had before was quite messy.....
1. I started with Euler's sine product( given by Michael
above),
2. Then replaced x by a+ib,
3. Then took log of both the sides,
4. Equated imaginary parts on both sides
5. Replaced a=b=-p
and that gave me the answer........
It's quite tedious and totally messy.....
Believe me!! It is nothing like the answers you both have
given!!
thanks again...
love arun