Mersenne primes are those primes that can be made from the
expression 2n-1. I can generate prime numbers when I
give prime values for n . But this does not work when n=11,
23...
I would like to know why?
Perhaps you should look at it like this instead: if
2n-1 is prime then n is prime. You cannot infer from
this that if n is prime then so is 2n-1. If that makes
sense.
Regards,
Olof.
Is it true that if n is a Germain prime and n º-1 mod 12 then 2n-1 is divisible by 2n+1?
Olof is right about the first question. In
general, a statement and its converse are not logically equivalent.
(For example, x = 3 implies x2 = 9 but x2 = 9
does not imply x = 3.) Specifically in this case it is true that
for integers a,n >1 then if:
an - 1
is prime then n is prime. To prove this, assume n is composite, so
n = pq where p,q are integers >1.
an - 1 = apq - 1 = (ap -
1)(apq - p + apq - 2p + apq - 3p +
... + ap + 1)
So the expression has a proper factor ap - 1 which is a
contradiction, so we're done.
However it is not true that if a,n are integers >1 with n prime
then an - 1 is prime.
As for the last question, I think I remember someone at college
saying that a Germain prime n is one such that n,2n+1 are prime. So
if n = 12k-1, 2n+1 = 24k-1. So we want to investigate
whether:
212k - 1 = 1 (mod 24k - 1)
where 12k - 1 and 24k - 1 are primes.
Well firstly, by Fermat's Little Theorem:
224k - 2 = 1 (mod 24k - 1)
Therefore:
(212k - 1 - 1)(212k - 1 + 1) = 0 (mod 24k -
1)
By unique prime factorisation, we deduce:
212k - 1 = 1 or -1 (mod 24k - 1)
We want to show that 212k - 1 = 1, so we need some way
of eliminating the second possibility. I can't yet see it...
OK, I see how to do it now. We want to
show that if n and 2n+1 are prime with n+1 a multiple of 12 then
2n-1 is divisible by 2n+1. In fact we don't need all
these conditions. We will drop the condition that n is prime and
only insist n+1 is a multiple of 4 not 12.
So, we're going to show that if n+1 is a multiple of 4 with 2n+1
prime then 2n-1 is divisible by 2n+1. I need to assume a
result from Gauss:
Gauss' Lemma
Let p be an odd prime, and let a be natural number which isn't
divisible by p. Let f(x) be the number in [0,p-1] satisfying f(x) =
x (mod p). There exists an integer x such that x2 = a
(mod p) if and only if the number of f(a),f(2a),...,f((p-1)/2 a)
which exceed p/2 is even.
For a proof see the start of Andrew Smith's message of July 26
here.
Now n+1 is a multiple of 4, so 2n+1 = -1 (mod 8). 2n+1 is prime and
it is easy to see with Gauss' Lemma that this implies that there
exists x such that x2 = 2 (mod 2n+1). Raise both sides
to the power of n and we get:
x2n = 2n (mod 2n+1)
But by Fermat's Little Theorem the left hand side = 1 (mod 2n+1) so
2n - 1 is a multiple of 2n+1 as desired.