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'Harmonically' printed from http://nrich.maths.org/
The Harmonic
Series.
Murat Aygen from Turkey sent this solution
to part (a) and Dapeng Wang from Claremont Fan Court School and
Sunil Ghosh from the Royal Grammar School, Guildford sent in
essentially the same solution.
Let us partition the terms of our series, starting from every $k=
2^{i-1}+ 1$, as follows: $\sum_{k=1}^{n} \left({1\over{k}}\right) =
1 + \left({1\over{2}}\right) + \left({1\over{3}} +
{1\over{4}}\right) + \left({1\over{5}} + {1\over{6}} + {1\over{7}}
+ {1\over{8}}\right) + \sum_{i=4}^{n} \left(\frac{1}{2^{i-1}+1} +
\dots + {1\over2^{i}}\right)$
How many terms are there in each partition? We see that there are
1, 2, 4, 8, 16... terms in the successive partitions given by $2^i
- 2^{i -1}$ where $2^i - 2^{i -1} = 2^{i -1}(2-1) = 2^{i
-1}$.
The smallest term in a partition is clearly the rightmost term
${1\over 2^i}$. This smallest term multiplied by the number of
terms in the partition is equal to $${1\over 2^i}\times 2^{i -1} =
{1\over 2}$$ which is always less than the sum of the terms of the
partition. Anyway it is a positive constant! Since the number of
terms in the series is as many as one wishes, we can form as many
partitions as we wish whose partial sums are not less than 1/2. For
reaching a sum of 100 only 200 partitions are needed.
Noah and Ariya from The British School of
Boston, USA and Aled from King Edward VI Camp Hill School for Boys
sent excellent solutions to part (b) .

Each of the areas of the pink rectangles is representative of one
fraction in the sum
$$S_n = 1 +{1\over 2} + {1\over 3} + {1\over 4} + ... + {1\over n}.
$$This is verified by knowing that each rectangle x has a base of
length 1 and a height of length 1/x. Every rectangle has an area
greater than that under the curve $y=1/x$ it overlaps, as
illustrated above (note that this will remain so because the
function $y= 1/x$ is monotonic for positive
numbers).
 |
Consider the area under the graph $y = 1/x$ between $x=a$ and
$x=b$. This area lies between two rectangles and so we get $${b-a
\over b} < \int_a^b{ 1\over x }dx = \ln b - \ln a < {
b-a\over a}$$
If we evaluate the expression between $a = {1\over n}$ and $b=
{1 \over {n-1}}$ we get:
|
$${1\over n} < \ln {1 \over {n-1}} - \ln {1 \over n} = \ln n -
\ln (n-1) < { 1\over n-1}$$
and this gives:
$${1 \over 2} < \ln 2- \ln 1< { 1\over 1}$$
$${1 \over 3} < \ln 3- \ln 2< { 1\over 2}$$
$${1 \over 4} < \ln 4- \ln 3< { 1\over 3}$$
...and so on
$${1 \over n} < \ln n- \ln (n-1)< { 1\over n-1}$$
Summing these expressions (noting that $\ln1 = 0$) we get:
$${1\over 2} + {1\over 3} + {1\over 4} + ... + {1\over n} < \ln
n < 1 + {1\over 2} + {1\over 3} + {1\over 4} + ... + {1\over
n-1} .$$
The series on each side of this inequality grow infinitely large
and differ by less than 1 so the series grows like $\ln n$.